Accession treaties are exempt from the referendum requirement. Will the Foreign Secretary explain how the accession of Turkey, which by that stage would probably have a larger population than Germany, would not amount to a considerable loss of influence for the United Kingdom, given the system of qualified majority voting? Why is it therefore exempt from a referendum? I just do not get it.
European Union Bill
Proceeding contribution from
Baroness Stuart of Edgbaston
(Labour)
in the House of Commons on Tuesday, 7 December 2010.
It occurred during Debate on bills on European Union Bill.
About this proceeding contribution
Reference
520 c203Session
2010-12Chamber / Committee
House of Commons chamberSubjects
Librarians' tools
Timestamp
2023-12-15 13:53:43 +0000
URI
http://data.parliament.uk/pimsdata/hansard/CONTRIBUTION_690517
In Indexing
http://indexing.parliament.uk/Content/Edit/1?uri=http://data.parliament.uk/pimsdata/hansard/CONTRIBUTION_690517
In Solr
https://search.parliament.uk/claw/solr/?id=http://data.parliament.uk/pimsdata/hansard/CONTRIBUTION_690517